Originally Posted by doublem23
I wonder how this works, because the right to arbitration is governed by the CBA, but how can the Sox sign Abreu to a 6-year-deal but still be vulnerable to his arb years, yet they can sign Chris Sale to an extension that extends through what would have been his arb years, yet Sale has no right to go to arbitration? Is it because this is Abreu's first MLB contract? Would the Sox and Abreu have had to specifically decline arbitration in the contract?
I think that was just an option negotiated into Abreu's contract, not anything mandated by the CBA. Sale could have negotiated such an option, but didn't.