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soxtalker
12-30-2006, 10:19 AM
I posted something about this in the "Levine" thread in What's the Score, but I think that it is a general question that belongs here. Levine was on the radio yesterday afternoon, discussing the McCarthy trade. He said that (over the course of a couple of months) the Sox had first offered Garcia and then Garland to the Rangers for the package of pitchers they eventually got.

The most interesting part of the conversation to me was a discussion of why Garland was not acceptable to the Rangers. Evidently, under the rules (collective bargaining agreement?), Garland, being in the middle of a long-term contract, would have been allowed to demand a trade after one year. I believe that Levine said that is no longer the case under the new agreement, but someone in a situation like Garland is grandfathered in.

I was listening while driving at the time, and I may have heard this incorrectly. Does anyone here know what the rule is? I would think that this is important regarding any possible trades of our veteran starting pitchers, as the new team would only have control for one year.

SadChiSoxFan
12-30-2006, 12:10 PM
I was driving and heard the same report....and had the same question you did.

mcfish
12-30-2006, 01:28 PM
Isn't that how we got Vazquez?

Oblong
12-30-2006, 02:05 PM
Transaction Primer (http://espn.go.com:80/mlb/s/transanctionsprimer.html)

a player with five years of service time who is traded in the middle of a multi-year contract may demand another trade prior to the start of the season following the one in which he was traded.

nedlug
12-30-2006, 03:00 PM
Great - now what exactly would be involved with 'demanding' a trade? Can you sit out games with pay while you are waiting?

Basically, what makes this trade demand more special than any old player wanting to be traded?

downstairs
12-30-2006, 03:01 PM
Transaction Primer (http://espn.go.com:80/mlb/s/transanctionsprimer.html)

Is that from the old CBA or new? The page doesn't even list a date with year it was published...

ondafarm
12-30-2006, 03:21 PM
Great - now what exactly would be involved with 'demanding' a trade? Can you sit out games with pay while you are waiting?

Basically, what makes this trade demand more special than any old player wanting to be traded?

At the end of the season the player can demand a trade before the beginning of the next one. As to sitting out with pay, I don't think so. I believe that if they don't trade you by the start of the season they must give you a release. If you demand a trade, your trade veto is forfeit and if they release you under that condition, the team is not obligated to pay you a dime. Not sure if your old club gets compensation if you sign with someone after the release, I don't think so.

Difference is, the trade is forced. If some guy gets traded to a team he despises, then all he has to do is play out the season.

Oblong
12-30-2006, 04:09 PM
Is that from the old CBA or new? The page doesn't even list a date with year it was published...

I honestly couldn't tell you. A friend sent it to me a few weeks ago.

But I think it covers what the original poster wanted. Garland would be grandfathered in.

soxtalker
12-30-2006, 05:00 PM
I honestly couldn't tell you. A friend sent it to me a few weeks ago.

But I think it covers what the original poster wanted. Garland would be grandfathered in.

Yes. And it covers JC and JV. On the other hand, Buehrle and Freddy Garcia only had one year left on their contracts, so it wouldn't affect any trades involving them.

I could see how this issue could affect a trade, though those details that ondafarm pointed out are probably significant.