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BnzCP
05-01-2006, 08:37 PM
I was watching tonights game against Cleveland. AJ was hit by a pitch, and the next inning, Vazquez hits Belliard. The ump warned him, but Belliard wasn't given a base, instead it was a ball. What happened here, I was totally confused.

Thanks in advance.

knocko94
05-01-2006, 08:39 PM
um yeah, Belliard wasn't hit by the pitch.

viagracat
05-01-2006, 08:47 PM
The ball went behind Belliard, but it was clearly a purpose pitch.

BnzCP
05-01-2006, 08:47 PM
um yeah, Belliard wasn't hit by the pitch.

Oh, that would explain a lot. What they said was he was hit and Vazquez was warned. Actually, at first they said Vazquez was going to be ejected. Thanks for clearing that up, it made no sense that he was hit and not given the base.

NUCatsFan
05-02-2006, 01:15 PM
Someone who knows the rules better than I can correct me. But I thought that if a player makes no attempt to get out of the way (or purposely tries to get hit), the ump has the discretion to not give him the base.

soxfan13
05-02-2006, 01:25 PM
Someone who knows the rules better than I can correct me. But I thought that if a player makes no attempt to get out of the way (or purposely tries to get hit), the ump has the discretion to not give him the base.

that is true

FedEx227
05-02-2006, 01:35 PM
Someone who knows the rules better than I can correct me. But I thought that if a player makes no attempt to get out of the way (or purposely tries to get hit), the ump has the discretion to not give him the base.

Ask Hunter Wendlestat

scottjanssens
05-02-2006, 02:25 PM
Someone who knows the rules better than I can correct me. But I thought that if a player makes no attempt to get out of the way (or purposely tries to get hit), the ump has the discretion to not give him the base.

Correct. And if the ball was in the strike zone when the player was struck, it's a strike.

DumpJerry
05-02-2006, 05:04 PM
Someone who knows the rules better than I can correct me. But I thought that if a player makes no attempt to get out of the way (or purposely tries to get hit), the ump has the discretion to not give him the base.
True, but the fine print in that rule reads:
Notwithstanding the above. this rule shall apply only when Joseph Crede is the batter and is wearing a uniform for the Chicago American League franchise and the opposing pitcher is wearing the uniform of the Oakland American League franchise.

Credit Hunter Wendelstat and Bruce Foeming for actually reading the fine print.

oeo
05-03-2006, 11:50 AM
Someone who knows the rules better than I can correct me. But I thought that if a player makes no attempt to get out of the way (or purposely tries to get hit), the ump has the discretion to not give him the base.

Yes, very bad memories from last year against Oakland. :angry:

Joosh
05-03-2006, 05:04 PM
True, but the fine print in that rule reads:
Notwithstanding the above. this rule shall apply only when Joseph Crede is the batter and is wearing a uniform for the Chicago American League franchise and the opposing pitcher is wearing the uniform of the Oakland American League franchise.

Credit Hunter Wendelstat and Bruce Foeming for actually reading the fine print.

Wait a minute, who let Shoota edit the MLB rulebook?

PennStater98r
05-03-2006, 06:43 PM
:crede "Damn fine print!"