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itsnotrequired
12-07-2005, 01:36 PM
Okay, a couple questions about arbitration:


Team signs a hot-shot player right out of college to a 3 year contract. After year three, the team offers him arbitration rather than a new contract. The case ends up going to an arbitrator and a contract is place for the next year. What happens after that season? Is he arbitration eligible again? It seems like they could go through arbitration every year until he became a free agent.
What happens if a player with less than six years service declines arbitration? He is still the property of the team, is he not? Would he just be "sitting at home"? Appears as if the player would more or less be retiring.

Ol' No. 2
12-07-2005, 01:42 PM
Okay, a couple questions about arbitration:




Team signs a hot-shot player right out of college to a 3 year contract. After year three, the team offers him arbitration rather than a new contract. The case ends up going to an arbitrator and a contract is place for the next year. What happens after that season? Is he arbitration eligible again? It seems like they could go through arbitration every year until he became a free agent.
What happens if a player with less than six years service declines arbitration? He is still the property of the team, is he not? Would he just be "sitting at home"? Appears as if the player would more or less be retiring.
There are 3 classes of player:


1. Serf (less than 3 years service). They get tendered a contract at or near the minimum. They have 2 choices: take it or leave it.
2. Arbitration eligible (3 -6 years service): Teams can offer arbitration or not by Dec 20. Player cannot decline.
3. Free Agent eligible (6+ years of service): Can decline arbitration if offered, becoming free agent.

itsnotrequired
12-07-2005, 01:52 PM
There are 3 classes of player:


1. Serf (less than 3 years service). They get tendered a contract at or near the minimum. They have 2 choices: take it or leave it.
2. Arbitration eligible (3 -6 years service): Teams can offer arbitration or not by Dec 20. Player cannot decline.
3. Free Agent eligible (6+ years of service): Can decline arbitration if offered, becoming free agent.

1. For the Serfs, what happens if they "leave it"? Can they talk with another team or have they effectively "retired"?

2. The player cannot decline at all? So is he forced to play? Seems like you could decline it and in essence, retire.

Ol' No. 2
12-07-2005, 01:54 PM
1. For the Serfs, what happens if they "leave it"? Can they talk with another team or have they effectively "retired"?

2. The player cannot decline at all? So is he forced to play? Seems like you could decline it and in essence, retire.1. Leaving it means playing for the Newark Bears.

2. You can't force someone to work. Declining the arbitration offer...see #1.

itsnotrequired
12-07-2005, 02:08 PM
1. Leaving it means playing for the Newark Bears.

2. You can't force someone to work. Declining the arbitration offer...see #1.

Gotcha. Thanks!

I've looked around for answers to these questions and all I could find was answers to what happens when people accept. I can't imagine a situation where a non-FA player would decline arbitration but I figured I should ask.

ChiSoxRowand
12-07-2005, 03:13 PM
How many times can you go through arbitration in the 3-6 year period? Is it just once?

Flight #24
12-07-2005, 03:17 PM
How many times can you go through arbitration in the 3-6 year period? Is it just once?

You can go through arbitration every time it's offered, in perpetuity. If the Sox had offered Frank arb, he could have gone through it (and alomst certainly would have since the maximum salary reductions possible is IIRC 20%).

itsnotrequired
12-07-2005, 03:38 PM
You can go through arbitration every time it's offered, in perpetuity. If the Sox had offered Frank arb, he could have gone through it (and alomst certainly would have since the maximum salary reductions possible is IIRC 20%).

I thought it was 10%...

EDIT: Whoops, just looked it up.






Article VI (D) (3): In tendering a contract to a Player pursuant to paragraph 10(a) of the Uniform Player’s Contract, no Major League Club shall offer a salary which constitutes a reduction in excess of 20% of the Player’s previous year’s salary or in excess of 30% of his salary two years previous.

itsnotrequired
12-07-2005, 03:59 PM
After some more checking into the CBA, I found this tidbit:



Article VI(F)(3)(c) Special Exceptions to Maximum Salary Reduction Rules
(ii) A Club may submit a salary arbitration figure without regard to the provisions of Section D above if the figure submitted is with respect to a Player who, in the immediately preceding year, won a salary arbitration which increased the Player’s prior year’s salary by in excess of 50%.

The above exceptions to the maximum salary reduction rules do not alter the obligations of the Clubs to comply with Articles VI(D) and XX(A) of this Agreement and paragraph 10(a) of the Uniform Player’s Contract for the purposes of contract tender and renewal.




So player makes $2 mil in 2004 but through arbitration makes $5 mil in 2005. So in 2006, a team could submit a salary figure LESS than the 20% maximum reduction since the player won an arbitration case which increased the player's salary by more than 50%. So let's say the team submits a figure of $3 mil. What happens? The second paragraph states that the exception does not allow a team to violate the requirements of D which require no more than a 20% reduction in salary. Are these statements in conflict with each other?:dunno:

Ol' No. 2
12-07-2005, 04:03 PM
After some more checking into the CBA, I found this tidbit:








So player makes $2 mil in 2004 but through arbitration makes $5 mil in 2005. So in 2006, a team could submit a salary figure LESS than the 20% maximum reduction since the player won an arbitration case which increased the player's salary by more than 50%. So let's say the team submits a figure of $3 mil. What happens? The second paragraph states that the exception does not allow a team to violate the requirements of D which require no more than a 20% reduction in salary. Are these statements in conflict with each other?:dunno:
http://www.wilsonsalmanac.com/images2/crumb_head_explode.jpg

itsnotrequired
12-07-2005, 04:15 PM
Bah, I'm an idiot. It clearly says "without regard to the provisions of Section D" right in the exception.:redface:

But the question as to what happens when they submit a low figure remains. What advantage would a team have in doing that? Unless production slumped way down, the low figure from the team would get tossed by the arbitrator since the amount submitted by the player would most likely be closer to his market value.

Sort of seems like an odd exception. The only way I could see it working is if a player had an insane career year, won a huge deal through arbitration, performed like crap the next year and ended up on another team during the offseason. When he goes into arbitration with that new team, they wouldn't be "punished" by the great year the player had two seasons ago with a different team.

I suppose the same situation would exist if he stayed on the same team.