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BRDSR
06-08-2005, 06:26 PM
Something I've been considering for a long time is why in the world a run is charged to the pitcher against whom he got on base. It takes two pitchers to let in such a runner, so why doesn't the relief pitcher who gives up the run also see his ERA suffer? Why doesn't the pitcher who let him on get charged with half of a run and the pitcher who let him score get charged with half of a run? If nothing else, this would help White Sox fans see that Marte isn't as good as his ERA indicates since he lets inherited runners score with amazing consistency.

I have neither the time nor the patience to actually figuree this out for any actual pitchers. Obviously starters' ERAs would go down a bit and relievers' ERAs would go up a bit. In any case, I think it would be a mroe fair way of keeping the statistic and would be most helpful when it comes to evaluating relief pitchers talent. Whos with me? Does anyone want to figure out anyone's AERA? I would be interested to see it.

MRKARNO
06-08-2005, 08:38 PM
I have neither the time nor the patience to actually figuree this out for any actual pitchers.

The folks at BP do:

http://www.baseballprospectus.com/statistics/

http://www.baseballprospectus.com/about/

The stats they have are actually not exactly like adjusted ERA because ERA can only account for runners inherited, but they do have these other metrics to show the value of relief pitchers. Many of the terms they use in their stat reports can be found in the second link