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View Full Version : A ground rule question?


soxwon
07-24-2003, 09:43 PM
yesterday frank was at third-konerko up-the pitcher wild pitched and the ball hit the wall bounced back.
If the ball went into the stands could thomas score?

Daver
07-24-2003, 09:45 PM
Originally posted by soxwon
yesterday frank was at third-konerko up-the pitcher wild pitched and the ball hit the wall bounced back.
If the ball went into the stands could thomas score?

Yes,he would be allowed to advance on a wild pitch.

voodoochile
07-24-2003, 09:46 PM
Originally posted by daver
Yes,he would be allowed to advance on a wild pitch.

In fact, they would award him home plate in that decision. He would be forced to score.

pl8ump1012
07-25-2003, 09:34 AM
Originally posted by voodoochile
In fact, they would award him home plate in that decision. He would be forced to score.

If we want to be extremely technical about it :smile: , He wouldn't be forced to score. He is only rewarded the opportunity to advance one base(because it was on a pitch. Any throw from a fielder - a pitcher is a fielder if off the rubber - is two bases from time of pitch or time of play) without risk of being put out. It is, in all technicality his choice whether or not to take the base, but we all know what the choice would be.

voodoochile
07-25-2003, 10:58 AM
Originally posted by pl8ump1012
If we want to be extremely technical about it :smile: , He wouldn't be forced to score. He is only rewarded the opportunity to advance one base(because it was on a pitch. Any throw from a fielder - a pitcher is a fielder if off the rubber - is two bases from time of pitch or time of play) without risk of being put out. It is, in all technicality his choice whether or not to take the base, but we all know what the choice would be.

I did not know that...

Interesting technicality if nothing else. I wonder if a team has ever turned down the base...

WhiteSox = Life
07-25-2003, 11:04 AM
Originally posted by voodoochile
I did not know that...

Interesting technicality if nothing else. I wonder if a team has ever turned down the base...

I was wondering, could you do the same thing with a walk? Say you're hitting like Maggs is now and you get walked. Why can't you refuse the base?

Sure, it may be a stupid question, but what the heck, you know? It's happened before when the umpire lost track of the count when it should've been a walk and the hitter wound up with a single.

pl8ump1012
07-25-2003, 11:33 AM
Originally posted by WhiteSox = Life
I was wondering, could you do the same thing with a walk? Say you're hitting like Maggs is now and you get walked. Why can't you refuse the base?

Sure, it may be a stupid question, but what the heck, you know? It's happened before when the umpire lost track of the count when it should've been a walk and the hitter wound up with a single.

That is an interesting question. I would have to check the specific wording in the rule book, but once a batter gets four balls (according to the umpire, thus that ump's screwup was an exception), his at bat is considered over. I don't know what would happen if he "refused" to take first, since he can't be forced out. Maybe called out for delaying the game, which is a whole different section of the rule book...

Like you said, not that it would happen, but its still an interesting question.

voodoochile
07-25-2003, 11:42 AM
Originally posted by pl8ump1012
That is an interesting question. I would have to check the specific wording in the rule book, but once a batter gets four balls (according to the umpire, thus that ump's screwup was an exception), his at bat is considered over. I don't know what would happen if he "refused" to take first, since he can't be forced out. Maybe called out for delaying the game, which is a whole different section of the rule book...

Like you said, not that it would happen, but its still an interesting question.

Would he be considered "outside the basepath" if he continued to stand in the batters box?

Paulwny
07-25-2003, 11:43 AM
Originally posted by pl8ump1012
That is an interesting question. I would have to check the specific wording in the rule book, but once a batter gets four balls (according to the umpire, thus that ump's screwup was an exception), his at bat is considered over. I don't know what would happen if he "refused" to take first, since he can't be forced out. Maybe called out for delaying the game, which is a whole different section of the rule book...

Like you said, not that it would happen, but its still an interesting question.


At the end of this paragraph:
BASES ON BALLS
10.16
(a) A base on balls shall be scored whenever a batter is awarded first base because of four balls having been pitched outside the strike zone, but when the fourth such ball touches the batter it shall be scored as a "hit batter." (See 10.18 (h) for procedure when more than one pitcher is involved in giving a base on balls: Also see 10.17 (b) relative to substitute batter who receives base on balls.) (b) Intentional base on balls shall be scored when the pitcher makes no attempt to throw the last pitch to the batter into the strike zone but purposely throws the ball wide to the catcher outside the catcher's box. (1) If a batter awarded a base on balls is called out for refusing to advance to first base, do not credit the base on balls. Charge a time at bat.